am i just looking at grandparents because grandfather are the real deal?
Social mobility is slammed again in a book that aims to show the opposite. The independents’ headline is focusing on the male side of the lineage, and in some senses perhaps unintentionally ironic.
If we calculate/account the male side only, are we not proving a certain immobility? I wonder how to calculate genderroleperception immobility..
If the independents’ focus on male is because a perception that in the particular time frame we are talking about, say 200-300 years, it is most likely that men determined a family’s wealth, then perhaps this includes a forgetful mind regarding women who did just that, and even more women who determined wealth but couldn’t/denied ownership of their own properties. Is this an independent conflation..?